If a candidate wins a majority of the population as a whole, it is not logical to assume they won a majority of all demographics in that population.
More specifically, in the previous 2 times he ran before the 2024 election, we knew that the majority of women voters voted against him. And that he won one of those elections in spite of not getting a majority of women. So the logical thing to assume would be that he didn’t get the majority of women in 2024 either, in spite of the fact that he won that election. Which is what happened.
Not logical at all.
Why?
If a candidate wins a majority of the population as a whole, it is not logical to assume they won a majority of all demographics in that population.
More specifically, in the previous 2 times he ran before the 2024 election, we knew that the majority of women voters voted against him. And that he won one of those elections in spite of not getting a majority of women. So the logical thing to assume would be that he didn’t get the majority of women in 2024 either, in spite of the fact that he won that election. Which is what happened.
Makes sense